Q: Royden Chapter 2, Theorem 11

by Kash   Last Updated January 08, 2018 16:20 PM

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I don't understand the first part. Why can the set $E$ (subset of $\mathbb{R}$) be expressed as the disjoint union of a countable collection of measurable sets, each of which has finite outer measure? I searched for a proof of this statement in the book but I didn't found any. Can someone explain to me why is this true?



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